Useful Government Websites For Civil Service Preparation*

http://ncert.nic.in/  - Download NCERT Texts as PDF

http://nios.ac.in/  - Download NIOS Online Materials

http://egyankosh.ac.in/ - Download IGNOU Books

http://yojana.gov.in/  - Download Yojana and Kurukshetra Magazines

http://upsc.gov.in/  - Official Website of UPSC

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/mainpage.aspx  -  Press Information Bureau Website, for government updates

http://www.prsindia.org/  - PRS Website for tracking bills in Parliament

http://idsa.in/  - IDSA website for Defense and Foreign relations.

http://www.gatewayhouse.in/  - Indian Council for Global relations

http://envfor.nic.in/  - Ministry of Environment and Forests

http://mea.gov.in/ - Ministry of External Affairs

http://indiabudget.nic.in/ - Download Budget and Economic Survey

http://ptinews.com/ - Press Trust of India

http://ibef.org/  - India Brand Equity Foundation for economy and business.

http://www.pdgroup.upkar.in/  - Pratiyogita Darpan Magazine

http://niti.gov.in/content/  - NITI Aayog

http://www.makeinindia.com/home  - Make in India initiative for manufacturing related info.

Trick To Remember Direct and Indirect Taxes

Trick To Remember Direct and Indirect Taxes :- click on video below

Diary of a Wimpy Kid Series

Diary of a Wimpy Kid Series PDFs

DOWNLOAD LINKS:
diary of a wimpy kid
Rodrick-Rules
Diary of a Wimpy Kid 3 - Last Straw
Diary of a Wimpy Kid 4 - Dog Days
Diary of a Wimpy Kid 5 - The Ugly Truth
Diary of a Wimpy Kid 6 - Cabin Fever
Diary of a Wimpy Kid 7 - The Third Wheel

Economic Survey 2016 Highlights and PDF download

Ahead of the Union Budget on Monday, FM Arun Jaitley tabled Economic Survey 2016 report today; Which opens with “Amidst gloomy international economic landscape, India stands as a haven of stability

~Volume 1
•Economic Outlook, Prospects, and Policy Challenges
•The Chakravyuha Challenge of the Indian Economy
•Spreading Jam across India’s Economy
•Agriculture: More from Less
•Mother and Child
•Bounties for the Well-Off
•Fiscal Capacity for the 21st Century
•Preferential Trade Agreements
•The Fertiliser Sector
•Structural Changes in India’s Labour Markets
•Powering “One India”
Economic Survey 2016 PDF Volume 1 download

~Volume 2 
•State of the Economy: an overview
•Public Finance
•Monetary Management and Financial Intermediation
•External Sector
•Prices, Agriculture and Food Management
•Industrial, Corporate, and Infrastructure Performance
•Services Sector
•Climate Change and Sustainable Development
•Social Infrastructure, Employment and Human Development
Economic Survey 2016 PDF Volume 2 download

ALSO READ:-
•The Chakravyuha Challenge: Ease to enter, barriers to exit

•Press Information Bureau

Anti-national sloganeering at JNU

Anti-national sloganeering at JNU – Student’s emotions or Politics?

Introduction:
On February 9, the student’s organization DSU (Democratic Student’s Union) initiated a dialogue meeting to commemorate the judicial killing of Afzal Guru and Maqbool Bhat. Their meeting was to support the democratic rights to self-determination for people of Kashmir. DSU being a leftist group was immediately condemned by the right wing group ABVP (Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad) who tried to stop the meeting. DSU received support from Jawaharlal Nehru University Students Union, SFI (Students Federation of India) and AISA (All India Student’s Association).

The meeting was attended by Kashmiri students from JNU as well as from outside the campus. When ABVP tried to interrupt the meet, these students lost their calm and started the so called “anti-national sloganeering.”


The arrest of JNU student and Union president Kanhaiya Kumar on charges of sedition is still being debated. It is yet to be confirmed whether or not he uttered Anti-National or Pro-Pakistan slogans. The waywardness of BJP legislators beating students and media people also spurred debates. Amid all these imbroglio, the main agenda to conform what led to the anti-national sloganeering is somewhere getting blurred. Was it politics that made a simple debate grow large or is it the real emotions of students?

Student’s emotions:
1. Kashmiri Students: It is totally being ignored that the slogans to free Kashmir were raised by the large group of Kashmiri students that gathered in the meet. These people, who have long been under the wrath of AFSPA, were annoyed to see the right wing trying to be authoritative. It is their own pleas and protests for the hardships that their home is facing since independence. These are the people whose home has not known peace for long. It is their right to engage in dialogues to vent out their emotions.

2. The hanging of alleged terrorists: People across our country in large numbers had protested the hanging of Afzal Guru. It is not a news that people have been against this judicial decision for many reasons. They believe that hanging this one man isn’t enough. Killing one of these people who believe that the freedom of Kashmir is their only solution is not the solution to make these people understand that India isn’t an enemy to Kashmir.

3. Adding fire to sparks: The slogan debate happened from both sides. The right wing student’s group also called out slogans like “those who support Afzal will meet the ends like Afzal” and “the graves of naxalites will be dug on JNU’s soil.” Anger spurred from both sides. Venom spilled in measured and unmeasured quantities. The violent sloganeering did happen from both sides as recounted by eye-witnesses in JNU. Arrest on sedition charges to the leader of one group agitated students clearly.

4. Accepting different views: Students engaging in violent sloganeering is bound to create wrath. They are not willing to listen to each other or hear what the other person has to say. They are simply growing with the ideology planted in their own minds. It is extremely satirical that the right wing celebrating the likes of Hitler and Godse names someone sympathizing with a terrorist as anti-national while their pro-killing-of-Gandhi attitude still makes them a patriot.

Politics:
1. Leftist v/s rightist: The entire incident that led to the arrest and sedition charges on Kanhaiya Kumar spurred out of the clash between the right and left wings of students union. The rightists tried to stop the leftists from having the meeting to commemorate the judicial hanging of Afzal Guru. They received support from the administration of JNU for the political support they can garner. The leftists in turn got agitated and conducted the meet in any way they deemed fit.

2. Poisoning the young minds: The students of a university come to the campus to study and build their career rather than getting involved in the politics. However, for the vote bank politics, the seasoned politicians try to lure the young minds with position, power and money & make them generate such moments which can stir the national politics.

3. Judicial System: The pro Afzal Guru slogans were actually against the judicial system which heard the case and awarded the punishment. The common man would not go out on the streets and campaign against the highly respected top court without a political support.

Conclusion:
People are slowly becoming programmed robots who work only according to the programs fitted into their system/brain. If one is leftist, he/she is only programmed to blame Modi for everything that happens, even if the hanging of Afzal Guru happened during the UPA government. If one is rightist, that gives him/her the ultimate right to judge, punch and kick anyone that talks in support of leftists.

It is us who have to take a rational view and see that we do not fall prey to any anti-national activities and propogandas.

UPSC CSE material drive

To download UPSC CSE material click on various links as below

1.Google drive click.... CSE AIR1




Useful websites for IAS preparation listed in pic below

GUIDANCE : my proud mentor

Dedicated to my mentor..
My story is about a verbal teacher who I adore, cherish and look up to even to this present day. His name is Tanveer Iqbal Ahmed sir. 🙏

He's a man who really looks deep into the soul of each of us and always pushes you beyond your comfort zone in order for you to be the person you want to be, who he often knows before you do!
Ever since I met him 1 years ago, I remember the first day I met him.. I saw his comment to a student on some facebook group.. His words were-"I'll give you whatever you want..I'll help you as much as I can... What all I wanna see in you is Thirst..." These are the fist word which mesmerized me...
"I hate spoon feeding", also he wrote.... 😊
                                        I've never seen a person as humble as he is.. I'm reminding his words --when I asked him about my zest to learn English(I'm a Hindi medium student)..he asked me to buy a tablet for reading.. he said if you are unable Ashish I'll making available installments for you-- (who does that much for someone?) ☺
And this was the first day conversation after he accepted my friend request..
                             "What after tablet"-I asked...  He replied-" There will never be a shortage for study material i promise".... And after that day I really never felt shortage..  His works are inexplicable for me.. I do write all the things; they  would be much less..
I'm mesmerized by his accomplishments.. He secured AIR 17 in DU law entrance exam(CLAT).. He scores every year 99+percentile in CAT in verbal part.. His XAT score was 99.92 %ile..   He is simply awesome...👌
                  Along with study he told me that this day was needed in order for me to grow. Whenever I had a problem or an inner conflict, I approached him and asked him for guidance. No matter what, he always helped me in more ways than I thought and I thank him to this day for who I am today because he's more than just a verbal tutor - he's my guidance to find my inner Light through this world.
                   
I thank you for everything you've done to support me and many others in our journeys.
You really do mean a lot to me.....
Your's most obedient
Ashish

ARROGANCE DEMOLISHED(nd kids won eventually)

Yesterday Our college(govt.engineering clg,Jhalawar) was invited by Medical college for a volleyball match. The prize money of the match was 2100 rs.
Prize money doesn't matter nevertheless the main thing was doctors v/s engineers... :)
                              We reached govt. Medical college in evening.. As we entered in the ground, some medical girls  were  present there already--as u all know medical students hv more age compare than engineers-- So those girls shouted upon our entry-" Doodh peete bachche aa gye~hahahaha"... we Din't hv girls with us n according to etiquette  we couldn't say anything to them...... We just smiled nd move on..... :)
                     Now the match begin.. N those medical glz were cheering for medical team...  First set we've lost at score of 10-21..(those were on seventh sky after this win)...... Now the time was of KARO YA MARO.. We just put head to toe  efficiency. Now the time was of engineers :)
We won the next two set by the score of 21-8 nd 21-4 .  
There was a big silence on there side... Now this was our turn to cheers.. Finally DOODH PEETE BACHCHE owned the prize...
The blood was running at fullest.... Lungs were set on fire.... Everyone was happy.
Unforgettable time...
Learnt a new lesson --don't loose faith in urself..when other say u cant win,,believe me you are just near the victory..age is just a number, zest matters..

CSAT--data interpretation & sufficieny pdf

CSAT-data interpretation & sufficieny PDF.... Click

Computer fundamental books

Computer fundamental books PDFs....Click

Mahendra Coaching book material for BANK EXAM

Mahendra Coaching ALL material for BANK EXAM...Click

Paramount material

Paramount reasoning PDF....Click


Paramount math practice book PDF....Click


Paramount arithmetic PDF....Click


Paramount english vol.1 PDF....Click


Paramount english vol.2 PDF....Click

12-Insight 2016 Prelims test series pdf

12-Insight 2016 Prelims test series pdf..Click

NCERT Books for Class 6 to 12

NCERT Books
NCERT books are an important reference for UPSC Civil Services Preparation. Here you can download all NCERT books from 6th to 12th standard.This was the best link i found.To download pdfs..Click here

One more useful link I found for English as well Hindi medium is..Click


Old NCERT Google drive...Click

IAS STUDY Materials

IAS STUDY Materials.. Click

India’s gravitational wave observatory initiative IndIGO

     India’s gravitational wave observatory initiative IndIGO


Why IndIGO was in News?
The term IndIGO or Indian Initiative in Gravitational-wave Observations was in news in the second week of February 2016 as international physicists announced detection of gravitational waves for the first time since their prediction by Albert Einstein in 1916.


The waves were detected using the facilities at the existing three LIGO detectors that are located in Livingston, Louisiana and Hanford, Washington of the USA.

What is IndIGO?
IndIGO is an initiative to set up advanced experimental facilities, with appropriate theoretical and computational support, for a multi-institutional Indian national project in gravitational-wave astronomy. It is also touted as one of the large scale scientific projects undertaken in independent India in collaboration with global partners.

What is LIGO-India?
LIGO-India is the prime project under the IndIGO initiative. The Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave Observatory or LIGO project operates three gravitational-wave (GW) detectors. Two are at Hanford in the state of Washington, north-western USA, and one is at Livingston in Louisiana, south-eastern USA.

Currently these observatories are being upgraded to their advanced configurations (called Advanced LIGO). The proposed LIGO-India project aims to move one Advanced LIGO detector from Hanford to India.

LIGO-India project is envisaged as an international collaboration between the LIGO Laboratory and three lead institutions in the IndIGO consortium: Institute of Plasma Research (IPR) Gandhinagar, Inter University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune and Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), Indore.

LIGO lab would provide the complete design and all the key detector components. Indian scientists would provide the infrastructure to install the detector at a suitable site in India and would be responsible for commissioning it.


The proposed observatory would be operated jointly by IndIGO and the LIGO-Lab and would form a single network along with the LIGO detectors in USA and Virgo interferometer – an interferometer similar to LIGO, located close to Pisa, Italy.

How LIGO-India will be designed?
The proposed detector will be a Michelson Interferometer with Fabry-Perot enhanced arms of 4 km length and aims to detect differential changes in the arm-lengths as small as 10-23 Hz-1/2 in the frequency range between 30 to 800 Hz.


The design would be identical to that of the Advanced LIGO detectors that are being commissioned in the USA.

What are its scientific benefits?
• The scientific benefits of LIGO-India are enormous. Adding a new detector to the existing network will increase the expected event rates, and will boost the detection confidence of new sources by increasing the sensitivity, sky coverage and duty cycle of the network.

• But the dramatic improvement from LIGO-India would come in the ability of localizing GW sources in the sky. Sky-location of the GW sources is computed by combining data from geographically separated detectors ('aperture synthesis').

• Adding a new detector in India, geographically well separated from the existing LIGO-Virgo detector array, will dramatically improve the source-localization accuracies (5 to 10 times), thus enabling us to use GW observations as an excellent astronomical tool.


What will be its impact on Indian science, industry and education?

Impact on Indian science
• The proposed LIGO-India project will help Indian scientific community to be a major player in the emerging research frontier of GW astronomy.

• A major initiative like LIGO-India will further inspire frontier research and development projects in India.  The nature of the experiment is intrinsically multidisciplinary.

• It will bring together scientists and engineers from different fields like optics, lasers, gravitational physics, astronomy and astrophysics, cosmology, computational science, mathematics and various branches of engineering.


• In order to fully realize the potential of multi-messenger astronomy, the LIGO-India project will join forces with several Indian astronomy projects. Potential collaborators include the Astrosat project, future upgrades of the India-based Neutrino Observatory and optical/radio telescopes.

Impact on industry
The high-end engineering requirements of the project (such as the world's largest ultra-high vacuum facility) will provide unprecedented opportunities for Indian industries in collaboration with academic research institutions.


LIGO project has facilitated major industry-academic research partnerships in USA and Europe, and has produced several important technological spin offs. LIGO-India will provide similar opportunities to Indian industry.

Education and public outreach
• A cutting edge project in India can serve as a local focus to interest and inspire students and young scientists.

• The LIGO-India project involves high technology instrumentation and its dramatic scale will spur interest and provide motivation to young students for choosing experimental physics and engineering physics as career options.

• The ‘multi-spectral’ reach to physics will attract a large number of talented and motivated young researchers and students to the program, as it has done in other countries.


• The observatory will also be one of the very few research facilities in India of this scale, international relevance and technological innovation to which the general public and students can have access.

What is the present status of IndIGO?
Since 2009, the IndIGO Consortium has been involved in constructing the Indian road-map for Gravitational Wave Astronomy and a phased strategy towards Indian participation in realizing the crucial gravitational-wave observatory in the Asia-Pacific region.


In October 2011, LIGO-India was included in the list of Mega Projects under consideration by the then Planning Commission.

What is Indian Neutrino Observatory?
Similar to IndIGO, Indian Neutrino Observatory (INO) Project is another mega-science project. It is a proposed underground observatory to detect ephemeral particles called neutrinos.


The Union Cabinet cleared the project in 2015 to set up the laboratory in Tamil Nadu. However, the project has been stalled for over a year due to protests by activist groups, concerned over its environmental impact.

Indian scientists associated with detection of gravitational waves
Indian scientists have, over 30 years, contributed substantially to the recent discovery of gravitational waves. Notable among them are C V Vishveshwara, Bala Iyer, Anand Sengupta and Sanjib Mitra.

C V Vishveshwara and Bala Iyer were among the first in the world to solve Einstein’s equations to derive a mathematical model to explain how colliding black holes would look and what tell-tale signals they emitted.


While Anand Sengupta developed methods to ensure that both the LIGO detectors — separated by 3,000 kilometres — have caught the same gravitational wave, Sanjib Mitra has found ways to tell apart gravitational waves from various exotic stars.

Unacademy upsc videos

Unacademy UPSC: Introduction to Continental Drift (Alfred Wagner theory) and its postulates and other videos...
[Click here]

International Organizations and their Headquarters

International Organizations and their Headquarters


1. UNO - New York
2. UNICEF - New York
3. UNESCO - Paris
4. UNIDO - Vienna
5. WHO - Geneva
6. UNFPA - New York
7. ILO - Geneva
8. IMF - Washington DC
9. WTO - Geneva
10. International Court Of Justice - The Hague .
11. International Atomic Energy Agency - Vienna
12. World Bank - Washington D.C.
13. International Committee of the Red Cross -Geneva .
14. International Maritime Organisation - London
15. Universal Postal Union - Berne
16. Food and Agricultural Organisation - Rome .
17. World Meteorological Organisation - Geneva
18. SAARC - Kathmandu
19. Amnesty International - London
20. Transparency International - Berlin
21. World Intellectual Property Organization - Geneva
22. International Renewable Energy Agency - Abu Dhabi (UAE)
(Interim HQs)
23. Commonwealth of Nations - London
24. International Standards Organisation - Geneva.
25. UNEP( united nations environmental programme)- Nairobi (Kenya).

DIGITAL INDIA

                                          DIGITAL INDIA 

In an order to create participative, transparent and responsive government, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the much ambitious 'Digital India' programme on Wednesday, July 1, at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in the national capital.

Top industrialists like RIL Chairman and Managing Director Mukesh Ambani, Tata Group chairman Cyrus Mistry, Wipro Chairman Azim Premji and many others, were among the business honchos who shared their ideas of taking digital revolution to the masses. [Digital India week highlights]

What is Digital India?
•With the launch of Digital India programme, the government is taking a big step forward to transform the country into a digitally empowered knowledge economy.
•Includes various schemes worth over Rs 1 lakh crore like Digital Locker, e-eduction, e-health, e-sign and national scholarship portal.
•BharatNet in 11 states and Next Generation Network (NGN), are also a part of Digital India campaign.
•The programme includes projects that aim to ensure that government services are available to citizens electronically and people get benefit of the latest information and communication technology.
•The Ministry of Communications and IT is the nodal agency to implement the programme.

Vision Of Digital India
Here is what the government of India aims to achieve through Digital India initiative.

1. Infrastructure: The Digital India initiative has a vision to provide high speed internet services to its citizens in all gram panchayats. Bank accounts will be given priority at individual level. People will be provided with safe and secure cyber space in the country.

2. Governance and services: Government services will be available online where citizens will be ensured easy access to it. Transactions will be made easy through electronic medium.

3. Digital empowerment of citizens: This is one of the most important factor of the Digital India initiative to provide universal digital literacy and make digital sources easily accessible. The services are also provided in Indian languages for active participation.

9 major projects under the initiative:
1. Manufacturing of electronics: The government is focusing on zero imports of electronics. In order to achieve this, the government aims to put up smart energy meters, micro ATMs, mobile, consumer and medical electronics.

2. Provide public access to internet: The government aims to provide internet services to 2.5 lakh villages which comprises of one in every panchayat by March 2017 and 1.5 lakh post offices in the next two years. These post offices will become Multi-Service centres for the people.

3. Highways to have broadband services: Government aims to lay national optical fibre network in all 2.5 lakh gram panchayats. Broadband for the rural will be laid by December 2016 and broadband for all urban will mandate communication infrastructure in new urban development and buildings. By March 2017, the government aims to provide nationwide information infrastructure.

4. Easy access to mobile connectivity: The government is taking steps to ensure that by 2018 all villages are covered through mobile connectivity. The aim is to increase network penetration and cover gaps in all 44,000 villages.

5. e-Governance: The government aims to improve processes and delivery of services through e-Governance with UIDAI, payment gateway, EDI and mobile platforms. School certificates, voter ID cards will be provided online. This aims for a faster examination of data.

6. IT Training for Jobs: The government aims to train around 1 crore students from small towns and villages for IT sector by 2020. Setting up of BPO sectors in North eastern states is also part of the agenda.

7. e-Kranti: This service aims to deliver electronic services to people which deals with health, education, farmers, justice, security and financial inclusion.

8. Global Information: Hosting data online and engaging social media platforms for governance is the aim of the government. Information is also easily available for the citizens.

MyGov.in is a website launched by the government for a 2-way communication between citizens and the government. People can send in their suggestions and comment on various issues raised by the government, like net neutrality.

9. Government plans to set up Wi-fi facilities in all universities across the country. Email will be made the primary mode of communication. Aadhar Enabled Biometric Attendance System will be deployed in all central government offices where recording of attendance will be made online.

Impact of Digital India by 2019
•Broadband in 2.5 lakh villages, universal phone connectivity
•Net Zero Imports by 2020
•400,000 Public Internet Access Points
•Wi-fi in 2.5 lakh schools, all universities; Public wi-fi hotspots for citizens
•Digital Inclusion: 1.7 Cr trained for IT, Telecom and Electronics Jobs
•Job creation: Direct 1.7 Cr. and Indirect at least 8.5 Cr.
•e-Governance & eServices: Across government
•India to be leader in IT use in services - health, education, banking
•Digitally empowered citizens - public cloud, internet access

Benefits of Digital Locker
•Digital Locker facility will help citizens to digitally store their important documents like PAN card, passport, mark sheets and degree certificates.
•Digital Locker will provide secure access to Government issued documents. It uses authenticity services provided by Aadhaar.
It is aimed at eliminating the use of physical documents and enables sharing of verified electronic documents across government agencies.
•Digital Locker provides a dedicated personal storage space in the cloud to citizens, linked to citizens Aadhaar number.
•Digital Locker will reduce the administrative overhead of government departments and agencies created due to paper work.

What is National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN)?
•NOFN proposes seven lakh kilometers of optical fibre to be laid to connect 250 gram panchayats in three years.
•Public Wi-fi spots will be provided around the clusters after that and all villages will be provided with internet connectivity.
•According to Communications and Information Technology Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad, "ten states including Maharashtra, Madhya Prasad, Rajasthan, West Bengal, Haryana and Chhattisgarh, are ready to roll out the NOFN to facilitate Digital India.
                         Prasad, early this year, had described Digital
India initiative as, "India would become a very powerful
digitally connected world. This would lead to a good architecture for electronic delivery of service. The entire contour of India is change. India is sitting at the cusp of a big digital revolution."
States like Telangana, Meghalaya, Jharkhand also observed Digital India Week (DIW) from July 1 to July 7.
        The University Grants Commission (UGC) also directed all varsities and higher education institutes across the country to observe the Digital India Week.

Source~Government of India, DNA

IMPORTANT WARS AND BATTLES OF INDIA

Important wars and battles
For downloading important wars and battles of India.. Click on

https://drive.google.com/file/d/0ByeqMnR8SGNXdHBBMjA1aUhNU1E/view?usp=docslist_api&pref=2&pli=1

PARLIAMENT : objective questions

                            PARLIAMENT : objective questions

1. The model code of conduct for Political parties and candidates to be followed during election is:
A. Laid down in the constitution of India
B. Specified in the representation of the People Act. 1951
C. Enjoined by the supreme court
D. A voluntary agreement among recognized political parties.
Ans: B

2. Who is the chairman of the Lok Sabha ?
A. President
B. Minister of Parliament affairs
C. Speaker
D. Prime Minister
Ans: C

3. Which one of the following Articles empowers the President to Appoint Prime Minister of India ?
A. Article 74
B. Article 75
C. Article 76
D. Article 77
Ans: B

4. The constituent Assembly formed the drafting committee of India constitution on:
A. 29th August 1947
B. 30th August 1948
C. 29th August 1949
D. 29th August 1950
Ans: A

5. Which one of the following sets of Bills is Presented to the Parliament along with the Budget ?
A. Direct taxes bill and Indirect taxes bill
B. Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill
C. Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill
D. Finance Bill and Contingency Bill
Ans: C

6. Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian Constitution ?
(A) British Constitution
(B) U.S. Constitution
(C) Irish Constitution
(D) The Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: D

7. In which article of the Constitution of India has the Joint Sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha been provided ?
(A) Article 101
(B) Article 108
(C) Article 133
(D) Article 102
Ans: B

8. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Upper House within:
(A) 10 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 30 days
Ans: B

9. Name the committee for formulating the framework of restructuring railways:
(A) Jain Committee
(B) Venkatachelliah
(C) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(D) Dinesh Goswami Committee
Ans: C

10. Who among the following is/are not appointed by the President of India ?
(A) Governors of the States
(B) Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts
(C) Vice-President
(D) Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court
Ans: C

Q.11. Which of the following Committees are Committees of Parliament?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Ans: A

12. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of
A. six years
B. for six years or the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
C. during pleasure of the President
D. for five years or the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
Ans: B

13. Kamraj Plan was a plan formulated in 1963 by:
A. Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the senior ministers were asked to leave government and work to rejuvenate the party
B. Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new Constitution for the Indian National Congress was proposed
C. Chief Minister of Madras, whereby a new set of principles for accepting donations for the party work was proposed
D. Chief Minister of Madras to root out corruption from India
Ans: A

14. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of
A. declaration of the election results
B. its first meeting
C. issue of notification for the conduct of elections of the Panchayat
D. taking oath of office by the elected members
Ans: A

15.What does Article 17 of the Constitution Say?
(a) Untouchability is abolished
(b) The practice of untouchability is forbidden
(c) Practice untouchability is an offence
(d) All of the above
Ans: D

16. Who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces in India?
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Commander-in-chief
(c) The President of India
(d) Minister of Defence
Ans: C

17. Who is known as the sculptor of the constitution of India’?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) V.V. Giri
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Ans: C

18. What is known as the “Little India”?
(a) City
(b) Town
(c) Village
(d) State
Ans: C

19. Who decides disputes relating with the allotment of symbols to Political Parties:
(A) Representation Act 1952
(B) Representation Act 1953
(C) Representation of the People Act 1951
(D) Election Commission
Ans: D

20. What was the 'privy purse' in the context of the history of Modern India?
A. A purse given privately by one organization to another
B. A purse given by the government of India to dignitaries for service rendered
C. A grant given by the Government of India to the erstwhile Princes of India
D. A gift given by an erstwhile Prince of India to the Government of India
Ans: C

21. The term of Member of the Rajya Sabha is:
A. 5 Yr.
B. 6 Yr
C. Same as that of the Lok Sabha
D. Two years
Ans: B

22. Finance commission in India are set up from Time to time:
A. To lay down financial policies of Union govt.
B. To evolve a satisfactory tax-structure for economic development of the country
C. To promote foreign trade
D. For transfer of economic resources from center to states
Ans: D

23. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or Not ?
A. President
B. Chairmen of Rajya Sabha
C. Speaker of Lok sabha
D. Minister of Parliamentary affairs
Ans: C

24. The concept lok Adalat is mainly to expedite cases relating to:
1. Matrimonial dispute
2. murder
3. motor vehicle accidents
4. suits relating to banks
Which one of these statements are correct ?
A. 1,3 and 4
B. 3,4 and 5
C. 1,2 and 4
D. 1,3
Ans:A

25. Who among the following did not serve as the Vice president before becoming president of India ?
A. Dr. S Radhakrishnan
B. Dr. Zakir Hussain
C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
D. R. Venkataraman
Ans: C

26. A federal structure of India was first put forward by the
(A) Act of 1909
(B) Act of 1919
(C) Act of 1935
(D) Act of 1947
Ans: B

27. Which writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority to perform a function that it was not performing ?
(A) Writ of Certiorari
(B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(C) Writ of Mandamus
(D) Writ of Quo Warranto
Ans: C

28. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office:
(A) By the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) By the President
(C) On the basis of a resolution of the Cabinet
(D) On the basis of proved misbehaviour by 2/3rd majority of both Houses of Parliament
Ans: D

29. If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha intends to vacate his office before the expiry of his term, he sends his resignation to the:
(A) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Leader of the House (Lok Sabha)
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) President of India
Ans: C

30. In which case did the Supreme Court of India determine that the Parliament has power to make amendment in fundamental rights, but it cannot make any change in the basic structure of the Constitution ?
(A) Golak Nath case
(B) Keshavanand Bharati case
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans: B

31. First woman judge to be appointed to Supreme Court was:
(A) Rani Jethmalani
(B) Anna George Malhotra
(C) M. Fathima Beevi
(D) Leila Seth
Ans: C

32. Which of the following political parties was first de-recognized and later on again recognized as a National Party by Election Commission of India ?
(A) Communist Party of India
(B) Communist Party of India-Marxist
(C) Samajwadi Party
(D) Republican Party of India
Ans: B

33. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched:
STATE or UT ----- Seat of High Court
A.. Uttarakhand -- Nainital
B. Daman and Diu -- Ahmedabad
C. Arunachal Pradesh - Guwahati
D. Chhattisgarh - Bilaspur
Ans: B

34. 34. Right to property according to Constitution of India is a -
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Directive Principle
C. Legal Right
D. Social Right
Ans: C

35. Which of the following amendments in the Constitution of India are related with the institution of "Panchayat Raj"?
1. 106th
2. 100th
3. 73rd
4. 74th
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Both 3 & 4
Ans: D

36. The first Five-Year Plan in India was launched in the year?
A. 1951
B. 1947
C. 1948
D. 1949
Ans: A

37. Who is the Chief Law Officer of India ?
A. Secretary, Law Department
B. Attorney General
C. Advocate General
D. Solicitor General
Ans: B

38. Who prepared the first draft Constitution of India ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Advisory Branch of the Constituent Assembly
(D) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
Ans: C

39. Who was the Chairman of the Draft Committee of the Constituent Assembly ?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Jagjivan Ram
(D) None of the above
Ans: A

40. When did Constituent Assembly adopt a national Flag ?
(A) 22nd Aug. 1947
(B) 22nd July 1947
(C) 22nd Jan. 1947
(D) 22nd Oct. 1947
Ans: B

41. Who was the last British Governor General who addressed the Constituent Assembly ?
(A) Lord Attlee
(B) Lord Mount Batten
(C) Lord Bentick
(D) None of the above
Ans: B

42. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly ?
(A) 25th Nov. 1949
(B) 29th Nov. 1949
(C) 26th Nov. 1949
(D) 27th Nov. 1949
Ans: C

43. In the Parliament of India Upper House in known as ?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of States
(D) None of the above
Ans: B

44. In the National Flag, what does saffron colour represent ?
(A) Spirit of Renunciation
(B) Spirit of colours
(C) Spirit of Human nature
(D) None of the above
Ans: A

45. In the National Flag, which colour is used in the wheel ?
(A) Blue
(B) Navy Blue
(C) Red Green
(D) Green-White
Ans: B

46. Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of ?
A. six years
B. during the pleasure of the President
C. For six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
D. for five years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
Ans: C

47. The First Election Commissioner of India was
A. Dr.Nagendra Singh
B. S.P.Sen Verma
C. Sukumar Sen
D. K.V.K.Sundaram
Ans: C

48. The judge of the Supreme Court of India now retire at the age of
A. 62 years
B. 60 years
C. 65 years
D. 58 years
Ans: C

49. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?
A. Bill bringing a State under the President's rule
B. Money Bill
C. Bill pertaining to the removal of the President by impeachment
D. Bill proclaiming all the State of emergency arising out of war or external aggression.
Ans: B

50. The speaker of the Lok Sabha:
A. Has no right to vote
B. Votes like any other member of the Lok Sabha
C. Has two votes-one in ordinary course and another in case of tie
D. Votes only in case of tie
Ans: D

51. first state in India which was created on linguistic basis ?
A. Gujarat
B. Kerala
C. Haryana
D. Andhra Pradesh
Ans: D

52. During which Five Year Plan was Green Revolution initiated in India?
A. 5th
B. 6th
C. 4th
D. 3rd
Ans: B

53. Planing Commission is a -
A. Political body
B. Non-political body
C. Quasi-political body
D. Statutory body
Ans: C

54. National Development council was constituted on
A. August 16, 1950
B. April 1,1951
C. August 6, 1952
D. august 16, 1952
Ans: C

55. Which law officer shall have the right to speak in both the Houses of Parliament ?
(A) Solicitor General
(B) Advocate General
(C) Attorney General
(D) Legal Advisor
Ans: C

56. Which Article of the Constitution of India mentioned the posts of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha ?
(A) 90
(B) 89
(C) 93
(D) 94
Ans: B

57. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented ?
(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above
Ans: B

58. Where wards Committees are found ?
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) Municipalities
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

59. Who has the Authority to approve President Rule in the state ?
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) State Legislature
(D) Council of State
Ans: A

60. Constitutionally, who has the power to make a law on the subject mentionable in the Union List :
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Legislative Council
Ans: B

61. In the Union govt. the council of minister is collectively responsible to the:
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Lok sabha
D. Parliament
Ans: C

62. How many members are nominated to the Rajya-Sabha ?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 15
Ans: B

63. The judges of the High court of a state are appointed by ?
A. President
B. Governor
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Vice-President
Ans: A

64. According to Which articles of the Indian Constitution is Hindi, In devnagari script the official language of the Union ?
A. Article 243
B. Article 343
C. Article 223
D. Article 123
Ans: B

65. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court ?
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369
Ans: A

66. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution ?
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367
Ans: C

67. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution ?
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India
Ans: D

68. Who decides allotment of symbols to Political Parties ?
(A) Political Party leader
(B) Political Party Governing Committees
(C) Election Committee of Political Party
(D) Election Commission
Ans: D

69. Who decides de-recognition of the Political Party solely on the basis of its performance at the election, e.g., bycotting of the election ?
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) Election Commission
(C) High Court
(D) District Court
Ans: B

70. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament ?
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month
Ans: C

71. Before the independence of India, Dadra and nagar haveli were under the administrative control of ?
A. English
B. French
C. Portuguese
D. Afgans
Ans: C

72. Who among the following was the first chief Justice of India and assumed office on 26th Jan. 1950 ?
A. Meher Chand mahajan
B. Patanjali sastri
C. Harilal Kania
D. BK Mukherjea
Ans: C

73. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC and ST ?
(A) Article 337
(B) Article 334
(C) Article 338
(D) Article 339
Ans:C

74. Which community gets special provision for Central Services in Article 336 ?
(A) Sikh Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Hindu Community
(D) Anglo-Indian Community
Ans:D

75. National Commission for SC and ST shall be made by which constitutional institution ?
(A) Parliament
(B) Executive
(C) Judiciary
(D) State Legislature
Ans: A

76. Under Constitutional Article 343, which is the official language of the Union ?
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) b & c
Ans: D

77. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj ?
(A) 243O
(B) 243A
(C) 243
(D) 243I
Ans: C

78. Which Constitutional Article define `Municipalities' ?
(A) Article 243P
(B) Article 243Q
(C) Article 243T
(D) Article 343U
Ans: A

79. The Constitution of India, was drafted and enacted in which language ?
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu
Ans: B

80. Total No. of Schedule in Constitution of India is :
A. 22
B. 17
C. 97
D. 12
Ans: D

81. Constitution of India was enacted by the Constituent Assembly on:
A. 26 January 1950
B. 26 Nov. 1949
C. 20 Nov. 1950
D. 20 January 1949
Ans: B

82. Constitution of India came into effect on:
A. 26 January 1950
B. 26 Nov. 1949
C. 20 Nov. 1950
D. 20 January 1949
Ans: A

83. The Constitution declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, assuring its citizens of justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavours to promote fraternity among them. The words "socialist" and "secular" were added to the definition in year:
A. 1956
B. 1976
C. 1970
D. 1952
Ans: B

84. Total No. of six fundamental rights in Constitution of India is:
A. 12
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
Ans: C (1.Right to equality 2.Right to freedom 3.Cultural and education rights 4.Constitutional remedies 5.Right for protection 6.Right to vote )

85. Indian Independence Act, passed by the British Parliament on:
A. 18 July 1947
B. 20 July 1947
C. 14 August 1947
D. 20 July 1946
Ans: A

86. Who represented Parsis Community in Constituent Assembly:
A. HP Modi
B. Frank Anthony
C. Kanaiyalal Munshi
D. James Franklin
Ans: B (Frank Anthony represented the Anglo-Indian community, and the Parsis were represented by H. P. Modi)

87. Who represented Parsis Community in Constituent Assembly:
A. HP Modi
B. Frank Anthony
C. Harendra Coomar Mookerjee
D. Benegal Narsing Rau
Ans: C (Frank Anthony represented the Anglo-Indian community, and the Parsis were represented by H. P. Modi while Harendra Coomar Mookerjee, a distinguished Christian who represented all Christians other than Anglo-Indians)

88. For the members of parliament in India, who determines the salaries and allowances from time to time ?
A. Union cabinet
B. Ministry of Parliament Affairs
C. Cabinet secretariat
D. Parliament by law
Ans: D

89. Who was the prime Minister of India when a Constitutional status for the Panchayati raj and urban self-
governing institutions was accorded ?
A. Indira Gandhi
B. Rajeev Gandhi
C. PV Rarasimha Rao
D. Atal Bihari Vaipayee
Ans: C

90. In India when both Offices of President and Vice-President happen to be vacant simultaneously who will discharge the duties of the President ?
A. Prime Minister
B. Union Home Minister
C. Speaker of Lok sabha
D. Chief Justice of India
Ans: D

91. As per constitution of India, the Legislative assembly of a state consists of more than 500 and not less than 60 members, but which one of the following states has 32 Members ?
A. Delhi
B. Sikkim
C. Goa
D. Puducherry
Ans: B

92.In the union govt the council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
A. Prime Minister of Inida
B. Lok sabha
C. Lok sabha and Rajya Sabha
D. Union cabinet
Ans: B

93. Under whose direct supervision is the Lok sabha secretariat ?
A. Cabinet Secretary
B. Ministry of Parliament affairs
C. Speaker of Lok sabha
D. Prime Minister of India
Ans: C

94. How many members can be nominated to the rajya sabha by president of India ?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 18
Ans: B

95. Who of the following is the chairman of the National Water resources council ?
A. Prime Minister of India
B. Union Minister of Water resources
C. Union minister of agriculture
D. Union Minister of earth sciences
Ans: A

96. Who is the chairmen of National Integration Council ?
A. President of India
B. Prime Minister of India
C. Minister of Minority affair
D. Chief Justice of India
Ans: B

97. Which one of the following dealt with the subject of Local self Government ?
A. Balwant rai Mehta Committee
B. Kothari Commission
C. Veerappa Moily Committee
D. Venkatachalam Commission
Ans: A

98. Which one of the following is not a fundamental right ?
A. Right against exploitation
B. Right to constitution remedies
C. Right to property
D. Cultural and educational rights
Ans: C

99. Which one is known as Lower House ?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya sabha
C. Vidhan Sabha
D. Vidhan Parishadquestions.
Ans: A

100. Under the panchayati Raj system Gram sabha consist of ?
A. Elected executives of a village
B. Persons who is registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village
C. Elected executives of a village and officials nominated by him/Her
D. The village surpanch ad the persons nominated by him/Her.
Ans: B

UNESCO

UNESCO:The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural 

The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN). Its purpose is to contribute to peace and security by promoting international collaboration through education, science, and culture in order to further universal respect for justice, the rule of law, and human rights along with fundamental freedom proclaimed in the UN Charter. It is the heir of the League of Nations’ International Commission on Intellectual Cooperation.

The Constitution of UNESCO was introduced and signed by 37 countries, and a Preparatory Commission was established. The Preparatory Commission operated between 16 November 1945, and 4 November 1946—the date when UNESCO’s Constitution came into force with the deposit of the twentieth ratification by a member state.

UNESCO has 195 member states and nine associate members. UNESCO has offices in many locations across the globe; its headquarters are located at Place de Fontenoy in Paris, France, now called the World Heritage Centre. The Headquarters of UNESCO was inaugurated on 3 November 1958.


The General Conference consists of the representatives of UNESCO’s Member States. It meets every two years, and is attended by Member States and Associate Members, together with observers for non-Member States, intergovernmental organizations and Non-Governmental organizations (NGOs).

UNESCO’s field offices are categorized into four primary office types based upon their function and geographic coverage: cluster offices, national offices, regional bureaux and liaison offices.

UNESCO pursue its objectives through five major Programs:
•Education
•Natural sciences
•Social and human sciences
•Culture

•Communication and information

UNESCO’s Aim:
•UNESCO’s aim is “to contribute to the building of peace, the eradication of poverty, sustainable development and intercultural dialogue through education, the sciences, culture, communication and information”.

UNESCO enjoys official relations with 322 international non-governmental organizations (NGOs). Most of these are what UNESCO calls “operational”, a select few are “formal”. The highest form of affiliation to UNESCO is “formal associate”.

Elections for the renewal of the position of Director-General took place in Paris from 7 to 23 September 2009. Eight candidates ran for the position, and 58 countries voted for them. The Executive Council gathered from 7 to 23 September, the vote itself beginning on the 17th. Irina Bokova was elected the new Director-General.

UNESCO is known as the “intellectual” agency of the United Nations. At a time when the world is looking for new ways to build peace and sustainable development, people must rely on the power of intelligence to innovate, expand their horizons and sustain the hope of a new humanism.

                    INDIAN  CONSTITUTION  MCQ-4


301. Under Article 324, Election Commission has vast functions which are as given in what area—
(A) Administrative power
(B) Marginally Judicative power
(C) Legislative power
(D) All of the above

302. After which Constitutional Amendment, even though decision of the Election Commission is issued from New Delhi, the order of the commission can be challenged by the aggrieved party in another state in the High Court of that State under Article 226—
(A) 15th Amendment Act
(B) 10th Amendment Act
(C) 11th Amendment Act
(D) 12th Amendment Act

303. Through which procedure, a writ can be filed in the Supreme Court against decision of the Election Commission on recognising or de-recognising a political party for the purpose of an electoral symbol, or which group within a particular party, constitutes that party for been allotted of Election symbol to that party—
(A) Under Article 32
(B) Under Article 229
(C) Special leave petition
(D) Public Interest Litigation

304. Under which Constitutional Article, Special leave to appeal lies with the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 136
(B) Article 137
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 139

305. Under which Constitutional Article review of judgement or orders lies with the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 139
(B) Article 137
(C) Article 140
(D) Article 141

306. Under which Constitutional Article enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is mentioned—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 148
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 143

307. Which Constitutional Article mentions conformation the Supreme Court of powers to issue certain writs—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 168
(C) Article 169
(D) Article 139

308. Which Constitutional Article mentions transfer of certain cases for Supreme Court—
(A) Article 139A
(B) Article 139B
(C) Article 139C
(D) Article 138
309. Which Constitutional Article defines law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts—
(A) Article 142
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 144

310. Under which Constitutional Article, President has the power to consult Supreme Court—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 146
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 144

311. Under which Constitutional Article, Civil and Judicial authorities are to act in aid of the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 245
(B) Article 248
(C) Article 146
(D) Article 144

312. Under which Constitutional Article repeal of special provision as to disposal of questions relating to constitutional validity of law is mentioned—
(A) Article 144A
(B) Article 345
(C) Article 248
(D) Article 249

313. Which Constitutional Article defines the subject ‘Officers and servants and expenses of the Supreme Court.’
(A) Article 296
(B) Article 147
(C) Article 247
(D) Article 245

314. Which Constitutional Article defines ‘Interpretation' of Constitutional right of Supreme Court—
(A) Article 163
(B) Article 162
(C) Article 147
(D) Article 161

315. Which Constitutional Article defines functions of Comptroller and Auditor General of India.—
(A) Article 148-150
(B) Article 149-150
(C) Article 148-155
(D) Article 148-151

316. Which Constitutional Article defines, Comptroller and Auditor General of India—
(A) Article 148
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 150
(D) Article 151

317. Through which Constitutional Article duties and powers of `Comptroller and Auditor General' is detailed—
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 199
(D) Article 168

318. Which Constitutional Article defines `Form of Accounts of the Union and the State.'—
(A) Article 151
(B) Article 152
(C) Article 150
(D) Article 153

319. Under which Constitutional Article, the Election Commission is a Tribunal—
(A) Article 136
(B) Article 136(3)
(C) Article 136
(2)(D) Article 136(1)

320. Up to which year Chief Election Commissioner functioned as one-man Commission—
(A) 1988
(B) 1989
(C) 1987
(D) 1986

321. In which months and year, the President notified that besides the Chief Election Commisioner the Commission should have two other members called as Election Commissioner—
(A) Nov. 1989
(B) Feb. 1989
(C) Oct. 1989
(D) Dec. 1989

322. Through which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that Chief Election Commissioner should have two other members called Election Commissioner with Coordinate power—
(A) Durga Shankar vs. Raghuraj A.I.R. 1954 S.C. 520
(B) Mohinder vs. Election Commission A.I.R. 1978 S.C. 851
(C) Inderjeet vs. Election Commission A.I.R. 1984 S.C 1911
(D) Dhanoa vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1991 S. C. 1745

323. Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed except by which process—
(A) Resignation
(B) Presidential Order
(C) Impeachment
(D) Judicial Decision

324. Under which Chief Election Commissioner, Election Commission was made a body of multimember Election Commission—
(A) T. N. Seshan
(B) H. K. Sen
(C) S. P. Sen Verma
(D) M. S. Gill

325. Which Chief Election Commissioner appealed the Supreme Court that under Article 324, Election Commission as a multi member Election Commission is not valid—
(A) K. B. Sundram
(B) T. Swaminathan
(C) H. S. Shakdhar
(D) T. N. Seshan

326. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other Commissioner in the Election Commission—
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

327. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall exist—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above

328. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall be conducted—
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above

329. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above

330. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22

331. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter—
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above
332. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter—
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295

333. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to Parliament—
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84

334. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a State Legislature—
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178

335. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage' signify—
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above
336. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission

337. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court—
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
338. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by appropriate Legislature—
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition

339. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha—
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334

340. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of
the Anglo-Indian Community' with House of the People—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333

341. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President—
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

342. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes—
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

343. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333

344. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3

345. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down—
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above

346. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature—
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

347. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly—
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984

348. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

349. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly—
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above

350. Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and post’—
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339

351. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC and ST—
(A) Article 337
(B) Article 334
(C) Article 338
(D) Article 339

352. Which community gets special provision for Central Services in Article 336—
(A) Sikh Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Hindu Community
(D) Anglo-Indian Community

353. At the time of commencement of the Indian Community how many years were laid down for appointment to the post in the Railways, Customs, Postal & Telegraph services for the Anglo-Indian community—
(A) 2 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 6 years

354. What shall be the composition of National Commission for SC and ST—
(A) Chairperson
(B) Vice-Chairperson
(C) Five other members
(D) All the above

355. National Commission for SC and ST shall be made by which constitutional institution—
(A) Parliament
(B) Executive
(C) Judiciary
(D) State Legislature

356. Which Constitutional Article defines the SC—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 341
(D) Article 342

357. Which Constitutional Article defines the ST—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 343
(C) Article 347
(D) Article 342

358. Which Constitutional Article specifies official language of the Union—
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 345
(D) Article 346

359. Under Constitutional Article 343, which is the official language of the Union—
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) b & c

360. Which Constitutional Article empowers the State Legislature to adopt Hindi or any state language as the official language of that state—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 348
(D) Article 349

361. Whose satisfaction is required under Constitutional Article 347 regarding special provision for creating language spoken by a section of the population of a state—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister

362. Which Constitutional Article defines official language for communication between the state and another state and the Union—
(A) Article 349
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 243
(D) Article 305

363. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj—
(A) 243O
(B) 243A
(C) 243
(D) 243I

364. In the Indian Constitution, which type of the Sabha is mentioned under Panchayat Raj—
(A) District Sabha
(B) Gram Sabha
(C) Nagar Panchayat Sabha
(D) Zila Sabha

365. Under Constitutional Article 243, what is the meaning of Panchayat—
(A) Self Gram Panchayat Raj
(B) Government of Village
(C) Self Government
(D) None of the above

366. Under Constitutional Article 243D, in Panchayat who gets reservation—
(A) Scheduled Caste
(B) Scheduled Tribes
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

367. Who make composition of Panchayat under Constitutional Article 243(C)—
(A) State Assembly
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislature of State

368. Which Constitutional Article defines disqualification for the members of Panchayat—
(A) Article 243F
(B) Article 243G
(C) Article 243I
(D) None of the above

369. Which Constitutional Article defines the duration of the Panchayat—
(A) Article 243N
(B) Article 243O
(C) Article 243E
(D) Article 243B

370. Which Constitutional Article define `Municipalities'—
(A) Article 243P
(B) Article 243Q
(C) Article 243T
(D) Article 343UU

371. Which Constitutional Article defines `constitution of Municipalities'—
(A) Article 243M
(B) Article 243I
(C) Article 243L
(D) Article 243Q

372. Constitutionally, who notifies the phenomenal area of—
(A) Parliament
(B) Governor
(C) Chief Minister
(D) State Government

373. A Municipal Council is situated in which area—
(A) Larger Urban area
(B) Urban area
(C) Smaller Urban area
(D) None of the above

374. Governor issues a notification for which areas on the subject of constitution of Municipal area—
(A) A Transitional Area
(B) A Smaller Urban Area
(C) A Larger Urban Area
(D) All the above

375. For Election of Members to Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly, electoral constituencies comprise wholly or partly of which area—
(A) A Transitional Area
(B) Municipal Area
(C) Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

376. Where wards Committees are found—
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) Municipalities
(D) None of the above

377. Under Constitutional Article 343D, a metropolitan area represent how many number of population—
(A) Ten Lakhs or more
(B) Fifteen Lakhs or more
(C) Less than Ten Lakhs
(D) Less than Five Lakhs

378. Under Constitutional Article 243U, what is the maximum duration of Municipalities—
(A) 4 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 3 years

379. Which Constitutional Article defines Election to Municipalities—
(A) Article 243A
(B) Article 243ZA
(C) Article 243ZB
(D) Article 243P

380. Through which Constitutional Amendment, Municipalities continued to be in force in the state which existed before commencement of the Indian constitution—
(A) Seventy-fourth Amendment Act 1992
(B) Forty-fourth Amendment Act 1978
(C) Forty-fifth Amendment Act 1989
(D) Forty-seventh Amendment Act 1984
381. The Constitution of India, was drafted and enacted in which language—
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu

382. In Article 394A which language is the authoritative text of the constitution of India—
(A) Punjabi
(B) Manipuri
(C) Hindi
(D) Urdu

383. Which Constitutional Article states ‘This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India’
(A) Article 397
(B) Article 396
(C) Article 395
(D) Article 394

384. Which Constitutional Article states that Hindi is the official language—
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 345
(D) Article 347

385. In which language script, Constitution of India was signed by the members of the Constitutent Assembly on 21st Jan. 1950—
(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

386. Which Constitutional Article defines the ‘Provision in case of failure of Constitutional Authority in the state—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 353
(D) Article 351

387. After which report, President promulgates President Rule in the State—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Union Home Minister
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Governor

388. Who has the Authority to approve President Rule in the state—
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) State Legislature
(D) Council of State

389. Who has the constitutional power not to approve `President Rule' in the state under Article 356—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Union Council of Ministers
(D) State Government

390. In case President Rule in the state is not approved by the Parliament, ‘For how many months the same promulgation shall last’.
(A) Four Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Six Months

391. Under Article 356 Governor shall not be bound by whose advice—
(A) Chief Minister Council of Ministers
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of the above

392. In which Supreme Court Judgement. it has been pronounced that `Article 356 cannot be invoked unless it can be held that government of the state cannot be run in accordance with the provision of the Constitution'
(A) Arun vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1992 Allahabad S.C. 1918
(B) S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1990 Kant 95
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

393. In which Supreme Court Judgement it has been pronounced that ‘the Union Government cannot dismiss a duly elected State Government on the sole ground that the ruling party in the state suffered an overwhelming defeat in the election of the Lok Sabha—
(A) S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1994 S.C. 1916
(B) State of Rajasthan vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1977 S.C. 1361
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

394. How many Schedules are incorporated in the Constitution of India—
(A) Eleventh Schedule
(B) Tenth Schedule
(C) Ninth Schedule
(D) Twelfth Schedule

395. Which Constitutional Article lays down distribution of work through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List between the Union and State—
(A) 246
(B) 247
(C) 248
(D) 249

396. In the Union List, how many subjects are incorporated—
(A) 95
(B) 92
(C) 97
(D) 99

397. In the State List, how many subjects are included—
(A) 65
(B) 66
(C) 64
(D) 63

398. In the Concurrent list, how many subjects have been included—
(A) 42
(B) 43
(C) 45
(D) 47

399. Constitutionally, how a law can be made out of the subject in the Concurrent List—
(A) Union
(B) State
(C) Council of State
(D) A & B

400. Constitutionally, who has the power to make a law on the subject mentionable in the Union List—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Legislative Council

Answers:-
301.(D) 302.(A) 303.(C) 304.(A) 305.(B) 306.(C) 307.(D) 308.(A) 309.(A) 310.(C)
311.(D) 312.(A) 313.(B) 314.(C) 315.(D) 316.(A) 317.(D) 318.(C) 319.(D) 320.(B)
321.(C) 322.(D) 323.(C) 324.(A) 325.(D) 326.(C) 327.(D) 328.(A) 329.(B) 330.(C)
331.(D) 332.(C) 333.(D) 334.(A) 335.(C) 336.(A) 337.(C) 338.(D) 339.(A) 340.(B)

341.(C) 342.(A) 343.(D) 344.(B) 345.(D) 346.(B) 347.(C) 348.(D) 349.(A) 350.(B)

351.(C) 352.(D) 353.(A) 354.(D) 355.(A) 356.(C) 357.(D) 358.(A) 359.(D) 360.(A)
361.(C) 362.(B) 363.(C) 364.(B) 365.(C) 366.(C) 367.(D) 368.(A) 369.(C) 370.(A)
371.(D) 372.(B) 373.(C) 374.(D) 375.(B) 376.(C) 377.(A) 378.(C) 379.(B) 380.(D)
381.(B) 382.(C) 383.(D) 384.(A) 385.(C) 386.(A) 387.(D) 388.(A) 389.(B) 390.(D)

391.(A) 392.(C) 393.(C) 394.(D) 395.(A) 396.(C) 397.(B) 398.(D) 399.(D) 400.(B)

                        INDIAN  CONSTITUTION  MCQ-3

201. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

202. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

203. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

204. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

205. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill
206. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18

207. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above
208. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

209. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

210. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

211. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country's constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College
212. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above

213. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government

214. What is the nature of India's political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

215. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

216. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

217. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

218. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above

219. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

220. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged—
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643

(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above

221. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

222. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court

223. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

224. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India

225. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above

226. Which Supreme Court judgement described the basic structure of the Constitution of India for the first time—
(A) Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Union of India
(D) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab

227. How many judges of the Supreme Court were in the Bench to describe the basic structure of the Constitution for the first time in the landmark Judgement Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 12
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 15

228. Under which Chief Justice of India, the Constitution Bench described the basic structure of the Constitution for the first time—
(A) Mr. Justice J. M. Shelat
(B) Mr. Justice J. S. Verma
(C) Mr. Justice C. J. Sikri
(D) Mr. Justice K. V. Chandrachud

229. In which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that Parliament cannot enlarge its own powers by making itself new Constitution—
(A) Sasanka vs. Union of India
(B) Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
(C) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
(D) Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India

230. What is the nature of the Indian Constitution—
(A) Rigid Constitution
(B) Flexible Constitution
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

231. Which Articles in the Indian Constitution represent emergency provisions—
(A) Article 348-354
(B) Article 352-360
(C) Article 359-361
(D) Article 368-380

232. Under which article of the Indian Constitution proclamation of emergency has been defined—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 353
(C) Article 354
(D) Article 358

233. Which article in the Constitution of India defines effect of proclamation of Emergency—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 353
(C) Article 354
(D) Article 257

234. Which Constitutional Article defines that only the union has the power to protect states against external aggression and internal disturbance—
(A) Article 359
(B) Article 360
(C) Article 355
(D) Article 361

235. Which Constitutional article defines the provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinary in States—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 358
(C) Article 359
(D) Article 369

236. Which Constitutional article defines exercise of Legislative power after proclamation is issued under article 356—
(A) Article 358
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 358

237. Which article defines suspession of the provisions of Article 18 during emergency—
(A) Article 344
(B) Article 345
(C) Article 343
(D) Article 358

238. Which constitutional article defines the provision in respect of financial emergency—
(A) Article 359
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 350

239. Which constitutional article defines the provision in respect of financial emergency—
(A) Article 348
(B) Article 351
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 362

240. Which constitutional article defines protection of President and Governors—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 301

241. Which constitutional article defines protection against publication of proceedings of Parliament and Legislature—
(A) Article 361D
(B) Article 361A
(C) Article 364
(D) Article 365

242. Which constitutional article defines the Bar to interference by Courts in disputes arising out of certain treaties, agreements, etc.—
(A) Article 363
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 372

243. Which constitutional article abolished the Privy Purses—
(A) Article 374
(B) Article 392
(C) Article 363A
(D) Article 364

244. Which constitutional article defines the effect of failure to comply with or to give effect to direction given by the Union—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 367
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 365

245. Which constitutional article defines the various definitions of constitutional subject—
(A) Article 366
(B) Article 369
(C) Article 375
(D) Article 378

246. Which Fundamental Rights Article is not in operation during the emergency—
(A) Article 22
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 23
(D) Article 24

247. Which constitutional organ has wider powers when emergency is in operation—
(A) Executive
(B) Legislative
(C) Judiciary
(D) A & B

248. Which organ does not have the right to question and justify as null and void the law which violates Fundamental Rights article?
(A) Executive
(B) Judiciary
(C) Legislative
(D) None of the above

249. Who has the power to declare that citizen has no right to move any court for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part 3 of Fundamental Rights during the course of emergency—
(A) Executive
(B) President
(C) Governor
(D) Prime Minister

250. Which Fundamental Rights article is enforceable during the period of emergency—
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

251. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency—
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act

252. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India

253. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above

254. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject—
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty

255. Who declares the financial emergency—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above

256. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month

257. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months

258. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

259. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

260. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office

261. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961

262. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361

263. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369

264. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C

265. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above

266. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above

267. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C

268. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

269. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

270. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367

271. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court

272. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above

273. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India

274. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above

275. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten

276. What are the subjects for adjudication or trial by Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Private sector employee recruitment disputes
(B) Decide on recruitment in Public sector
(C) Dispute and complaints with respect to recruitment and condition of service of persons appointed in the public services in connection with the officers of the Union or of any State or of any local or other Authority within the territory of India
(D) None of the above

277. Administrative Tribunal is meant for whom—
(A) Union
(B) Each State
(C) Two or more States
(D) All the above

278. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the subject Tribunal in the Indian Constitution—
(A) Forty-second Amendement Act
(B) Sixty-ninth Amendment Act
(C) Seventeenth Amendment Act
(D) Seventy-one Amendment Act

279. On which Administrative Tribunal have no right to adjudicate disputes—
(A) Members of the Defence Forces
(B) Officers and Servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court
(C) Members of the Secretariat Staff of Parliament or of any legislature of any State or Union Territory
(D) All of the above

280. Administrative Tribunals entertain those employees who are under employment with whom?
(A) Union or State Government
(B) A Local or other authority within the territory of India
(C) A Corporation owned or controlled by the Government
(D) All of the above

281. Jurisdiction of the Administrative Tribunal is not supplementary but is a complete substitute for whom—
(A) High Court
(B) Civil Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

282. Under which constitutional article, jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has been retained over the Administrative Tribunals—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 136
(C) Article 132
(D) Article 134

283. Jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226 over service matters has been taken over by which judicial institution—
(A) District Court
(B) Administrative Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) High Court

284. Which Constitutional Institution conducts elections of Parliament and State Legislatures and to the offices of President and Vice-President—
(A) State Election Commission
(B) Provisional Election Commission
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above

285. After 44th Constitutional Amendment provisions relating with election in Part XV of the Constitution of India have been retained in how many Articles—
(A) 324-329A
(B) 324-329
(C) 324-327
(D) 224-228

286. Which Constitutional Article relating with the subject of election was omitted through 44th Amendment Act 1975—
(A) 329A
(B) 329B
(C) 329C
(D) 329

287. Through which Constitutional Amendment, Article 329A relating with the subject of Election was inserted—
(A) 25th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 27th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 28th Amendment Act 1972
(D) 39th Amendment Act 1975

288. Through which Constituional Article, the subject of Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters have been elaborated—
(A) Article 327
(B) Article 229
(C) Article 329
(D) None of the above

289. Which Constitutional Article elaborated power of Parliament to make provision with respect to election to legislatures—
(A) Article 329
(B) Article 327
(C) Article 328
(D) Article 330

290. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) None of the above

291. Who acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission after appointment as Election Commissioner—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Chief Appointment Officer
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

292. Under whose advice, President of India appoints Regional Election Commissioner—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice of High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

293. Who decides allotment of symbols to Political Parties—
(A) Political Party leader
(B) Political Party Governing Committees
(C) Election Committee of Political Party
(D) Election Commission

294. Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was made by the Central Govt. in consultation with which commission—
(A) Parliamentary Members Inquiry Commission
(B) Regional Election Commissioners
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above

295. Who decides disputes relating with the allotment of symbols to Political Parties—
(A) Representation Act 1952
(B) Representation Act 1953
(C) Representation of the People Act 1951
(D) Election Commission

296. Who made a law for conduction of services and tenure of the office of Election Commissioners and Regional Election Commissioner—
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) State Legislature

297. Who decides de-recognition of the Political Party solely on the basis of its performance at the election, e.g., bycotting of the election—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) Election Commission
(C) High Court
(D) District Court

298. Can de-recognition of the Political Party by the Election Commission on the basis of its performance at the last Election be subjected to scrutiny—
(A) Judicial Review
(B) Judicial Order
(C) Judicial Scrutiny
(D) None of the above

299. On whose recommendation, Election Commissioner or Regional Election Commissioner shall be removed from the office—
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) President
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above

300. Who has ample powers under Article 324(1) to make appropriate orders as to the conduct of Elections, e.g., cancellation of poll and ordering to poll according to exigencies in particular areas, introduction of electronic voting machines, postponing of election, etc.—
(A) Regional Election Commissioner
(B) Election Committee of Government
(C) Electoral Officer
(D) Election Commission

Answers:- 
201.(D) 202.(C) 203.(B) 204.(A) 205.(B) 206.(D) 207.(D) 208.(D) 209.(D) 210.(C)
211.(D) 212.(D) 213.(C) 214.(B) 215.(B) 216.(A) 217.(D) 218.(D) 219.(C) 220.(A)
221.(B) 222.(A) 223.(D) 224.(D) 225.(D) 226.(B) 227.(A) 228.(C) 229.(C) 230.(C)
231.(B) 232.(A) 233.(B) 234.(C) 235.(A) 236.(B) 237.(D) 238.(A) 239.(C) 240.(D)
241.(B) 242.(A) 243.(C) 244.(D) 245.(A) 246.(B) 247.(D) 248.(B) 249.(B) 250.(C)

251.(A) 252.(C) 253.(B) 254.(D) 255.(A) 256.(C) 257.(B) 258.(C) 259.(C) 260.(D)
261.(A) 262.(D) 263.(A) 264.(B) 265.(D) 266.(D) 267.(D) 268.(A) 269.(B) 270.(C)
271.(A) 272.(C) 273.(D) 274.(A) 275.(C) 276.(C) 277.(D) 278.(A) 279.(D) 280.(D)
281.(C) 282.(B) 283.(B) 284.(C) 285.(B) 286.(A) 287.(D) 288.(C) 289.(B) 290.(A)

291.(D) 292.(D) 293.(D) 294.(C) 295.(D) 296.(C) 297.(B) 298.(A) 299.(C) 300.(D)