INDIAN  CONSTITUTION  MCQ-3

201. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

202. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

203. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

204. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

205. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill
206. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18

207. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above
208. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

209. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

210. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

211. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country's constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College
212. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above

213. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government

214. What is the nature of India's political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

215. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

216. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

217. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

218. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above

219. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

220. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged—
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643

(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above

221. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

222. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court

223. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

224. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India

225. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above

226. Which Supreme Court judgement described the basic structure of the Constitution of India for the first time—
(A) Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Union of India
(D) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab

227. How many judges of the Supreme Court were in the Bench to describe the basic structure of the Constitution for the first time in the landmark Judgement Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 12
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 15

228. Under which Chief Justice of India, the Constitution Bench described the basic structure of the Constitution for the first time—
(A) Mr. Justice J. M. Shelat
(B) Mr. Justice J. S. Verma
(C) Mr. Justice C. J. Sikri
(D) Mr. Justice K. V. Chandrachud

229. In which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that Parliament cannot enlarge its own powers by making itself new Constitution—
(A) Sasanka vs. Union of India
(B) Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
(C) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
(D) Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India

230. What is the nature of the Indian Constitution—
(A) Rigid Constitution
(B) Flexible Constitution
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

231. Which Articles in the Indian Constitution represent emergency provisions—
(A) Article 348-354
(B) Article 352-360
(C) Article 359-361
(D) Article 368-380

232. Under which article of the Indian Constitution proclamation of emergency has been defined—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 353
(C) Article 354
(D) Article 358

233. Which article in the Constitution of India defines effect of proclamation of Emergency—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 353
(C) Article 354
(D) Article 257

234. Which Constitutional Article defines that only the union has the power to protect states against external aggression and internal disturbance—
(A) Article 359
(B) Article 360
(C) Article 355
(D) Article 361

235. Which Constitutional article defines the provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinary in States—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 358
(C) Article 359
(D) Article 369

236. Which Constitutional article defines exercise of Legislative power after proclamation is issued under article 356—
(A) Article 358
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 358

237. Which article defines suspession of the provisions of Article 18 during emergency—
(A) Article 344
(B) Article 345
(C) Article 343
(D) Article 358

238. Which constitutional article defines the provision in respect of financial emergency—
(A) Article 359
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 350

239. Which constitutional article defines the provision in respect of financial emergency—
(A) Article 348
(B) Article 351
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 362

240. Which constitutional article defines protection of President and Governors—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 301

241. Which constitutional article defines protection against publication of proceedings of Parliament and Legislature—
(A) Article 361D
(B) Article 361A
(C) Article 364
(D) Article 365

242. Which constitutional article defines the Bar to interference by Courts in disputes arising out of certain treaties, agreements, etc.—
(A) Article 363
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 372

243. Which constitutional article abolished the Privy Purses—
(A) Article 374
(B) Article 392
(C) Article 363A
(D) Article 364

244. Which constitutional article defines the effect of failure to comply with or to give effect to direction given by the Union—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 367
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 365

245. Which constitutional article defines the various definitions of constitutional subject—
(A) Article 366
(B) Article 369
(C) Article 375
(D) Article 378

246. Which Fundamental Rights Article is not in operation during the emergency—
(A) Article 22
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 23
(D) Article 24

247. Which constitutional organ has wider powers when emergency is in operation—
(A) Executive
(B) Legislative
(C) Judiciary
(D) A & B

248. Which organ does not have the right to question and justify as null and void the law which violates Fundamental Rights article?
(A) Executive
(B) Judiciary
(C) Legislative
(D) None of the above

249. Who has the power to declare that citizen has no right to move any court for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part 3 of Fundamental Rights during the course of emergency—
(A) Executive
(B) President
(C) Governor
(D) Prime Minister

250. Which Fundamental Rights article is enforceable during the period of emergency—
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

251. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency—
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act

252. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India

253. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above

254. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject—
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty

255. Who declares the financial emergency—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above

256. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month

257. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months

258. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

259. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

260. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office

261. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961

262. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361

263. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369

264. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C

265. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above

266. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above

267. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C

268. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

269. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

270. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367

271. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court

272. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above

273. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India

274. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above

275. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten

276. What are the subjects for adjudication or trial by Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Private sector employee recruitment disputes
(B) Decide on recruitment in Public sector
(C) Dispute and complaints with respect to recruitment and condition of service of persons appointed in the public services in connection with the officers of the Union or of any State or of any local or other Authority within the territory of India
(D) None of the above

277. Administrative Tribunal is meant for whom—
(A) Union
(B) Each State
(C) Two or more States
(D) All the above

278. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the subject Tribunal in the Indian Constitution—
(A) Forty-second Amendement Act
(B) Sixty-ninth Amendment Act
(C) Seventeenth Amendment Act
(D) Seventy-one Amendment Act

279. On which Administrative Tribunal have no right to adjudicate disputes—
(A) Members of the Defence Forces
(B) Officers and Servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court
(C) Members of the Secretariat Staff of Parliament or of any legislature of any State or Union Territory
(D) All of the above

280. Administrative Tribunals entertain those employees who are under employment with whom?
(A) Union or State Government
(B) A Local or other authority within the territory of India
(C) A Corporation owned or controlled by the Government
(D) All of the above

281. Jurisdiction of the Administrative Tribunal is not supplementary but is a complete substitute for whom—
(A) High Court
(B) Civil Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

282. Under which constitutional article, jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has been retained over the Administrative Tribunals—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 136
(C) Article 132
(D) Article 134

283. Jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226 over service matters has been taken over by which judicial institution—
(A) District Court
(B) Administrative Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) High Court

284. Which Constitutional Institution conducts elections of Parliament and State Legislatures and to the offices of President and Vice-President—
(A) State Election Commission
(B) Provisional Election Commission
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above

285. After 44th Constitutional Amendment provisions relating with election in Part XV of the Constitution of India have been retained in how many Articles—
(A) 324-329A
(B) 324-329
(C) 324-327
(D) 224-228

286. Which Constitutional Article relating with the subject of election was omitted through 44th Amendment Act 1975—
(A) 329A
(B) 329B
(C) 329C
(D) 329

287. Through which Constitutional Amendment, Article 329A relating with the subject of Election was inserted—
(A) 25th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 27th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 28th Amendment Act 1972
(D) 39th Amendment Act 1975

288. Through which Constituional Article, the subject of Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters have been elaborated—
(A) Article 327
(B) Article 229
(C) Article 329
(D) None of the above

289. Which Constitutional Article elaborated power of Parliament to make provision with respect to election to legislatures—
(A) Article 329
(B) Article 327
(C) Article 328
(D) Article 330

290. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) None of the above

291. Who acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission after appointment as Election Commissioner—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Chief Appointment Officer
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

292. Under whose advice, President of India appoints Regional Election Commissioner—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice of High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

293. Who decides allotment of symbols to Political Parties—
(A) Political Party leader
(B) Political Party Governing Committees
(C) Election Committee of Political Party
(D) Election Commission

294. Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was made by the Central Govt. in consultation with which commission—
(A) Parliamentary Members Inquiry Commission
(B) Regional Election Commissioners
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above

295. Who decides disputes relating with the allotment of symbols to Political Parties—
(A) Representation Act 1952
(B) Representation Act 1953
(C) Representation of the People Act 1951
(D) Election Commission

296. Who made a law for conduction of services and tenure of the office of Election Commissioners and Regional Election Commissioner—
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) State Legislature

297. Who decides de-recognition of the Political Party solely on the basis of its performance at the election, e.g., bycotting of the election—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) Election Commission
(C) High Court
(D) District Court

298. Can de-recognition of the Political Party by the Election Commission on the basis of its performance at the last Election be subjected to scrutiny—
(A) Judicial Review
(B) Judicial Order
(C) Judicial Scrutiny
(D) None of the above

299. On whose recommendation, Election Commissioner or Regional Election Commissioner shall be removed from the office—
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) President
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above

300. Who has ample powers under Article 324(1) to make appropriate orders as to the conduct of Elections, e.g., cancellation of poll and ordering to poll according to exigencies in particular areas, introduction of electronic voting machines, postponing of election, etc.—
(A) Regional Election Commissioner
(B) Election Committee of Government
(C) Electoral Officer
(D) Election Commission

Answers:- 
201.(D) 202.(C) 203.(B) 204.(A) 205.(B) 206.(D) 207.(D) 208.(D) 209.(D) 210.(C)
211.(D) 212.(D) 213.(C) 214.(B) 215.(B) 216.(A) 217.(D) 218.(D) 219.(C) 220.(A)
221.(B) 222.(A) 223.(D) 224.(D) 225.(D) 226.(B) 227.(A) 228.(C) 229.(C) 230.(C)
231.(B) 232.(A) 233.(B) 234.(C) 235.(A) 236.(B) 237.(D) 238.(A) 239.(C) 240.(D)
241.(B) 242.(A) 243.(C) 244.(D) 245.(A) 246.(B) 247.(D) 248.(B) 249.(B) 250.(C)

251.(A) 252.(C) 253.(B) 254.(D) 255.(A) 256.(C) 257.(B) 258.(C) 259.(C) 260.(D)
261.(A) 262.(D) 263.(A) 264.(B) 265.(D) 266.(D) 267.(D) 268.(A) 269.(B) 270.(C)
271.(A) 272.(C) 273.(D) 274.(A) 275.(C) 276.(C) 277.(D) 278.(A) 279.(D) 280.(D)
281.(C) 282.(B) 283.(B) 284.(C) 285.(B) 286.(A) 287.(D) 288.(C) 289.(B) 290.(A)

291.(D) 292.(D) 293.(D) 294.(C) 295.(D) 296.(C) 297.(B) 298.(A) 299.(C) 300.(D)