INDIAN  CONSTITUTION  MCQ-4


301. Under Article 324, Election Commission has vast functions which are as given in what area—
(A) Administrative power
(B) Marginally Judicative power
(C) Legislative power
(D) All of the above

302. After which Constitutional Amendment, even though decision of the Election Commission is issued from New Delhi, the order of the commission can be challenged by the aggrieved party in another state in the High Court of that State under Article 226—
(A) 15th Amendment Act
(B) 10th Amendment Act
(C) 11th Amendment Act
(D) 12th Amendment Act

303. Through which procedure, a writ can be filed in the Supreme Court against decision of the Election Commission on recognising or de-recognising a political party for the purpose of an electoral symbol, or which group within a particular party, constitutes that party for been allotted of Election symbol to that party—
(A) Under Article 32
(B) Under Article 229
(C) Special leave petition
(D) Public Interest Litigation

304. Under which Constitutional Article, Special leave to appeal lies with the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 136
(B) Article 137
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 139

305. Under which Constitutional Article review of judgement or orders lies with the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 139
(B) Article 137
(C) Article 140
(D) Article 141

306. Under which Constitutional Article enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is mentioned—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 148
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 143

307. Which Constitutional Article mentions conformation the Supreme Court of powers to issue certain writs—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 168
(C) Article 169
(D) Article 139

308. Which Constitutional Article mentions transfer of certain cases for Supreme Court—
(A) Article 139A
(B) Article 139B
(C) Article 139C
(D) Article 138
309. Which Constitutional Article defines law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts—
(A) Article 142
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 144

310. Under which Constitutional Article, President has the power to consult Supreme Court—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 146
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 144

311. Under which Constitutional Article, Civil and Judicial authorities are to act in aid of the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 245
(B) Article 248
(C) Article 146
(D) Article 144

312. Under which Constitutional Article repeal of special provision as to disposal of questions relating to constitutional validity of law is mentioned—
(A) Article 144A
(B) Article 345
(C) Article 248
(D) Article 249

313. Which Constitutional Article defines the subject ‘Officers and servants and expenses of the Supreme Court.’
(A) Article 296
(B) Article 147
(C) Article 247
(D) Article 245

314. Which Constitutional Article defines ‘Interpretation' of Constitutional right of Supreme Court—
(A) Article 163
(B) Article 162
(C) Article 147
(D) Article 161

315. Which Constitutional Article defines functions of Comptroller and Auditor General of India.—
(A) Article 148-150
(B) Article 149-150
(C) Article 148-155
(D) Article 148-151

316. Which Constitutional Article defines, Comptroller and Auditor General of India—
(A) Article 148
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 150
(D) Article 151

317. Through which Constitutional Article duties and powers of `Comptroller and Auditor General' is detailed—
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 199
(D) Article 168

318. Which Constitutional Article defines `Form of Accounts of the Union and the State.'—
(A) Article 151
(B) Article 152
(C) Article 150
(D) Article 153

319. Under which Constitutional Article, the Election Commission is a Tribunal—
(A) Article 136
(B) Article 136(3)
(C) Article 136
(2)(D) Article 136(1)

320. Up to which year Chief Election Commissioner functioned as one-man Commission—
(A) 1988
(B) 1989
(C) 1987
(D) 1986

321. In which months and year, the President notified that besides the Chief Election Commisioner the Commission should have two other members called as Election Commissioner—
(A) Nov. 1989
(B) Feb. 1989
(C) Oct. 1989
(D) Dec. 1989

322. Through which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that Chief Election Commissioner should have two other members called Election Commissioner with Coordinate power—
(A) Durga Shankar vs. Raghuraj A.I.R. 1954 S.C. 520
(B) Mohinder vs. Election Commission A.I.R. 1978 S.C. 851
(C) Inderjeet vs. Election Commission A.I.R. 1984 S.C 1911
(D) Dhanoa vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1991 S. C. 1745

323. Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed except by which process—
(A) Resignation
(B) Presidential Order
(C) Impeachment
(D) Judicial Decision

324. Under which Chief Election Commissioner, Election Commission was made a body of multimember Election Commission—
(A) T. N. Seshan
(B) H. K. Sen
(C) S. P. Sen Verma
(D) M. S. Gill

325. Which Chief Election Commissioner appealed the Supreme Court that under Article 324, Election Commission as a multi member Election Commission is not valid—
(A) K. B. Sundram
(B) T. Swaminathan
(C) H. S. Shakdhar
(D) T. N. Seshan

326. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other Commissioner in the Election Commission—
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

327. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall exist—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above

328. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall be conducted—
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above

329. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above

330. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22

331. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter—
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above
332. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter—
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295

333. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to Parliament—
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84

334. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a State Legislature—
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178

335. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage' signify—
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above
336. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission

337. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court—
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
338. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by appropriate Legislature—
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition

339. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha—
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334

340. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of
the Anglo-Indian Community' with House of the People—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333

341. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President—
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

342. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes—
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

343. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333

344. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3

345. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down—
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above

346. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature—
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

347. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly—
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984

348. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

349. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly—
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above

350. Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and post’—
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339

351. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC and ST—
(A) Article 337
(B) Article 334
(C) Article 338
(D) Article 339

352. Which community gets special provision for Central Services in Article 336—
(A) Sikh Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Hindu Community
(D) Anglo-Indian Community

353. At the time of commencement of the Indian Community how many years were laid down for appointment to the post in the Railways, Customs, Postal & Telegraph services for the Anglo-Indian community—
(A) 2 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 6 years

354. What shall be the composition of National Commission for SC and ST—
(A) Chairperson
(B) Vice-Chairperson
(C) Five other members
(D) All the above

355. National Commission for SC and ST shall be made by which constitutional institution—
(A) Parliament
(B) Executive
(C) Judiciary
(D) State Legislature

356. Which Constitutional Article defines the SC—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 341
(D) Article 342

357. Which Constitutional Article defines the ST—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 343
(C) Article 347
(D) Article 342

358. Which Constitutional Article specifies official language of the Union—
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 345
(D) Article 346

359. Under Constitutional Article 343, which is the official language of the Union—
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) b & c

360. Which Constitutional Article empowers the State Legislature to adopt Hindi or any state language as the official language of that state—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 348
(D) Article 349

361. Whose satisfaction is required under Constitutional Article 347 regarding special provision for creating language spoken by a section of the population of a state—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister

362. Which Constitutional Article defines official language for communication between the state and another state and the Union—
(A) Article 349
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 243
(D) Article 305

363. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj—
(A) 243O
(B) 243A
(C) 243
(D) 243I

364. In the Indian Constitution, which type of the Sabha is mentioned under Panchayat Raj—
(A) District Sabha
(B) Gram Sabha
(C) Nagar Panchayat Sabha
(D) Zila Sabha

365. Under Constitutional Article 243, what is the meaning of Panchayat—
(A) Self Gram Panchayat Raj
(B) Government of Village
(C) Self Government
(D) None of the above

366. Under Constitutional Article 243D, in Panchayat who gets reservation—
(A) Scheduled Caste
(B) Scheduled Tribes
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

367. Who make composition of Panchayat under Constitutional Article 243(C)—
(A) State Assembly
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislature of State

368. Which Constitutional Article defines disqualification for the members of Panchayat—
(A) Article 243F
(B) Article 243G
(C) Article 243I
(D) None of the above

369. Which Constitutional Article defines the duration of the Panchayat—
(A) Article 243N
(B) Article 243O
(C) Article 243E
(D) Article 243B

370. Which Constitutional Article define `Municipalities'—
(A) Article 243P
(B) Article 243Q
(C) Article 243T
(D) Article 343UU

371. Which Constitutional Article defines `constitution of Municipalities'—
(A) Article 243M
(B) Article 243I
(C) Article 243L
(D) Article 243Q

372. Constitutionally, who notifies the phenomenal area of—
(A) Parliament
(B) Governor
(C) Chief Minister
(D) State Government

373. A Municipal Council is situated in which area—
(A) Larger Urban area
(B) Urban area
(C) Smaller Urban area
(D) None of the above

374. Governor issues a notification for which areas on the subject of constitution of Municipal area—
(A) A Transitional Area
(B) A Smaller Urban Area
(C) A Larger Urban Area
(D) All the above

375. For Election of Members to Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly, electoral constituencies comprise wholly or partly of which area—
(A) A Transitional Area
(B) Municipal Area
(C) Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

376. Where wards Committees are found—
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) Municipalities
(D) None of the above

377. Under Constitutional Article 343D, a metropolitan area represent how many number of population—
(A) Ten Lakhs or more
(B) Fifteen Lakhs or more
(C) Less than Ten Lakhs
(D) Less than Five Lakhs

378. Under Constitutional Article 243U, what is the maximum duration of Municipalities—
(A) 4 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 3 years

379. Which Constitutional Article defines Election to Municipalities—
(A) Article 243A
(B) Article 243ZA
(C) Article 243ZB
(D) Article 243P

380. Through which Constitutional Amendment, Municipalities continued to be in force in the state which existed before commencement of the Indian constitution—
(A) Seventy-fourth Amendment Act 1992
(B) Forty-fourth Amendment Act 1978
(C) Forty-fifth Amendment Act 1989
(D) Forty-seventh Amendment Act 1984
381. The Constitution of India, was drafted and enacted in which language—
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu

382. In Article 394A which language is the authoritative text of the constitution of India—
(A) Punjabi
(B) Manipuri
(C) Hindi
(D) Urdu

383. Which Constitutional Article states ‘This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India’
(A) Article 397
(B) Article 396
(C) Article 395
(D) Article 394

384. Which Constitutional Article states that Hindi is the official language—
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 345
(D) Article 347

385. In which language script, Constitution of India was signed by the members of the Constitutent Assembly on 21st Jan. 1950—
(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

386. Which Constitutional Article defines the ‘Provision in case of failure of Constitutional Authority in the state—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 353
(D) Article 351

387. After which report, President promulgates President Rule in the State—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Union Home Minister
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Governor

388. Who has the Authority to approve President Rule in the state—
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) State Legislature
(D) Council of State

389. Who has the constitutional power not to approve `President Rule' in the state under Article 356—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Union Council of Ministers
(D) State Government

390. In case President Rule in the state is not approved by the Parliament, ‘For how many months the same promulgation shall last’.
(A) Four Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Six Months

391. Under Article 356 Governor shall not be bound by whose advice—
(A) Chief Minister Council of Ministers
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of the above

392. In which Supreme Court Judgement. it has been pronounced that `Article 356 cannot be invoked unless it can be held that government of the state cannot be run in accordance with the provision of the Constitution'
(A) Arun vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1992 Allahabad S.C. 1918
(B) S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1990 Kant 95
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

393. In which Supreme Court Judgement it has been pronounced that ‘the Union Government cannot dismiss a duly elected State Government on the sole ground that the ruling party in the state suffered an overwhelming defeat in the election of the Lok Sabha—
(A) S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1994 S.C. 1916
(B) State of Rajasthan vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1977 S.C. 1361
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

394. How many Schedules are incorporated in the Constitution of India—
(A) Eleventh Schedule
(B) Tenth Schedule
(C) Ninth Schedule
(D) Twelfth Schedule

395. Which Constitutional Article lays down distribution of work through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List between the Union and State—
(A) 246
(B) 247
(C) 248
(D) 249

396. In the Union List, how many subjects are incorporated—
(A) 95
(B) 92
(C) 97
(D) 99

397. In the State List, how many subjects are included—
(A) 65
(B) 66
(C) 64
(D) 63

398. In the Concurrent list, how many subjects have been included—
(A) 42
(B) 43
(C) 45
(D) 47

399. Constitutionally, how a law can be made out of the subject in the Concurrent List—
(A) Union
(B) State
(C) Council of State
(D) A & B

400. Constitutionally, who has the power to make a law on the subject mentionable in the Union List—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Legislative Council

Answers:-
301.(D) 302.(A) 303.(C) 304.(A) 305.(B) 306.(C) 307.(D) 308.(A) 309.(A) 310.(C)
311.(D) 312.(A) 313.(B) 314.(C) 315.(D) 316.(A) 317.(D) 318.(C) 319.(D) 320.(B)
321.(C) 322.(D) 323.(C) 324.(A) 325.(D) 326.(C) 327.(D) 328.(A) 329.(B) 330.(C)
331.(D) 332.(C) 333.(D) 334.(A) 335.(C) 336.(A) 337.(C) 338.(D) 339.(A) 340.(B)

341.(C) 342.(A) 343.(D) 344.(B) 345.(D) 346.(B) 347.(C) 348.(D) 349.(A) 350.(B)

351.(C) 352.(D) 353.(A) 354.(D) 355.(A) 356.(C) 357.(D) 358.(A) 359.(D) 360.(A)
361.(C) 362.(B) 363.(C) 364.(B) 365.(C) 366.(C) 367.(D) 368.(A) 369.(C) 370.(A)
371.(D) 372.(B) 373.(C) 374.(D) 375.(B) 376.(C) 377.(A) 378.(C) 379.(B) 380.(D)
381.(B) 382.(C) 383.(D) 384.(A) 385.(C) 386.(A) 387.(D) 388.(A) 389.(B) 390.(D)

391.(A) 392.(C) 393.(C) 394.(D) 395.(A) 396.(C) 397.(B) 398.(D) 399.(D) 400.(B)